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SBE Sample Questions

State Board Exam Arts – Funeral Directing
 
1. A joint family is always:
A. mobile
B. egalitarian
C. patriarchal
D. matriarchal
 
2. A funeral rite that is adjusted to the needs and wants of those involved is known as:
A. adaptive
B. humanistic
C. traditional
D. a memorial service
 
3. Social customs which may be broken without serious consequences are known as:
A. laws
B. norms
C. mores
D. folkways
 
4. The religion of the United States is basically
A. Buddhist.
B. Judeo-Christian.
C. Muslim.
D. Hindu.
 
5. In the late 19th century, funeral services were usually held in the
A. home.
B. funeral home.
C. city hall.
D. church building.
 
6. All of the following are a part of the normal grief response except:
A. guilt
B. hallucinations
C. somatic distress
D. experience symptoms of the deceased’s last illness
 
7. Blame directed inward is the definition of:
A. guilt
B. anger
C. denial
D. dependency
 
8. Blame directed outward is the definition of:
A. guilt
B. anger
C. shame
D. dependency
 
9. The third stage of anticipatory grief described by Kubler-Ross is
A. anger.
B. bargaining.
C. denial.
D. depression.
 
10. Which of the following types of death would allow for anticipatory grief to occur?
A. SIDS
B. AIDS
C. suicide
D. homicide
 
11.What type of damages pay over and above the actual loss?
A. token
B. nominal
C. punitive
D. compensatory
 
12. Rules and Regulations passed by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) are examples of
A. statutory law.
B. administrative law.
C. case law.
D. common law.
 
13. False statements made in writing for the purpose of injuring the reputation of another constitute
A. slander.
B. libel.
C. breach of character.
D. implicit trespass.
 
14. A contract in which terms have NOT been fully performed by all parties is
A. unexecuted.
B. unilateral.
C. illegal.
D. executory.
 
15. A funeral director leasing a funeral coach from a livery service is an example of what type of bailment?
A. mutual benefit
B. special
C. gratuitous
D. constructive
 
16. Clothes and jewelry given to the funeral director to be placed on the dead body are considered in law as
A. no property.
B. quasi-property.
C. bailed property.
D. unclaimed property.
 
17. Funeral claims against the decedent’s estate are
A. secondary claims.
B. preferred claims.
C. illegal when filed.
D. treated as any other debt.
 
18. A funeral director is generally NOT responsbile for accidents that occur
A. during the funeral home visitation or service.
B. at a religious facility used for the funeral.
C. at the cemetery.
D. at the place where death occurs.
 
19. In a cortege, drivers that are under the control of the funeral director are legally referred to as
A. agent drivers.
B. livery drivers.
C. contract drivers.
D. volunteer drivers.
 
20. A funeral director may discuss information on a death certificate ONLY with
A. immediate family members.
B. friends of the deceased.
C. newspaper reporters.
D. their own family.
 
21. The proper title for an officiant of the Christian Science faith is a
A. pastor.
B. priest.
C. reader.
D. speaker.
 
22. A Greek orthodox religious picture is called
A. a kever.
B. an icon.
C. a solea.
D. a trisagion.
 
23. Which of the following in NOT specifically required by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC)?
A. Casket Price List
B. Outer Burial Container Price List
C. Funeral Agreement Form
D. General Price List
 
24. The time limit for making application for a veteran’s headstone for a deceased veteran is
A. 90 days.
B. 6 months.
C. 1 year.
D. no time limit.
 
25. Traditionally, the name given to a symbolic cloth covering placed over the casket is
A. a pall.
B. a veil.
C. a cape.
D. an interment cover.
 
26. In casket manufacturing, kapok is used as
A. a lining material.
B. a padding material.
C. a casket covering material.
D. a backing material.
 
27. Support from the funeral director is most recognizable in what type of selection room approach?
A. direct
B. indirect
C. private
D. nonverbal
 
28. A wedge-shaped burial container, which is broader at the shoulders than at the head or feet, is a
A. casket.
B. cenotaph.
C. coffin.
D. domet.
 
29. The part of the casket handle which the pallbearers grasp is the
A. lug.
B. arm.
C. bar.
D. ear.
 
30. What casket lining material is considered the standard for expensive caskets?
A. velvet
B. twill
C. crepe
D. satin
 
31. A liquidity ratio that measures the ability of a firm to meet its current debt on short notice is called the
A. quick asset ratio.
B. debt-to-owners’ equity ratio.
C. total assets ratio.
D. return-on-equity ratio.
 
 
 
32. Gross sales minus sales returns and allowances, and minus discounts on sales yields, are
A. total purchases.
B. operating expenses.
C. gross profit.
D. net sales.
 
33. A transaction in which caskets are bought on account from a supplier should be recorded as a credit to
A. sales.
B. cash.
C. accounts payable.
D. accounts receivable.
 
34. The right-hand amount column of a standard two-column ledger account form is called the
A. profit column.
B. loss column.
C. credit column.
D. debit column.
 
35. Assets that are easily converted into cash are termed
A. fixed.
B. liquid.
C. accrued.
D. intangible.
 
36. If the total of expenses is smaller than the total of revenues, the difference is termed
A. net worth.
B. gross profit.
C. gross margin.
D. net profit.
 
37. What is the interest on a $1000 note for 1 month at 8% annual interest rate?
A. $5.33
B. $5.95
C. $6.33
D. $6.67
 
38. When cash is spent in the aquisition of an asset, the net worth of the business is
A. not affected.
B. increased.
C. decreased.
D. balanced.
 
39. An increase in proprietorship as a result of a business transaction is considered
A. an asset.
B. a liability.
C. net worth.
D. income.
 
40. The left side of a standard account is called the
A. credit side.
B. debit side.
C. profit side.
D. balance side.
 
Answers to Questions:
 
1. C 6. D 11. C 16. C 21. C 26. B 31. A 36. D
 
2. A 7. A 12. B 17. B 22. B 27. A 32. D 37. D
 
3. D 8. B 13. B 18. D 23. C 28. C 33. C 38. A
 
4. B 9. B 14. D 19. A 24. D 29. C 34. C 39. D
 
5. A 10. B 15. A 20. A 25. A 30. A 35. B 40. B
 
 
 
State Board Exam Science – Embalming
 
1. A factor that indicates the use of a MORE dilute arterial solution is
A. thick skin.
B. tough skin.
C. emaciation.
D. hydration.
 
2. In a case involving death from uremia,
A. there is muscular degeneration.
B. the ammonia reacts with formaldehyde.
C. there is vascular obstruction.
D. urine is excreted.
 
3. Rigor mortis and algor mortis are similar in that both are
A. before death.
B. forms of edema.
C. stiffened conditions.
D. postmortem conditions
 
4. How many ounces of 32-index fluid are needed to make 2 gallons of a 2% fluid dilution?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
 
5. The settling of the blood to dependent portions of the body is called
A. livor mortis.
B. cadaveric lividity.
C. hypostasis.
D. imbibition.
 
6. The direction of eyebrow hair growth is laterally
A. upward.
B. upward and inward.
C. upward and outward.
D. downward and outward.
 
7. The width of the nose at its base is equal to the width of the
A. eye.
B. mouth.
C. eyebrow.
D. ear.
 
8. Which of the following sutures would best be employed for an abdominal puncture wound?
A. lock
B. baseball
C. intradermal
D. purse string
 
9. In posing the eyes, the eyelids should meet at the
A. center of the orbit.
B. superior third of the orbit.
C. inferior third of the orbit.
D. middle third of the orbit.
 
10. Hypodermic tissue building may be performed as a postembalming treatment for
A. emaciation.
B. tissue swelling.
C. controlling purge.
D. body fluid accumulation.
 
11. Bacteria that can grow in the absence or presence of free oxygen are known as
A. aerobes.
B. facultative.
C. obligate aerobes.
D. obligate anaerobes.
 
12. Which superficial dermatomycosis increases when associated with AIDS?
A. candidiasis
B. cryptococcosis
C. histoplasmosis
D. coccidioidomycosis
 
13. An important factor in any consideration of the mode of action of antimicrobial compounds is
A. transposition.
B. cross resistance.
C. selective toxicity.
D. plasmid-mediated resistance.
 
14. Pathogenic microbes are most virulent
A. after the first 24 hours.
B. during thermal death time.
C. only in the presence of dry heat.
D. when first emitted from the body.
 
15. Wearing protective clothing and exercising Universal Precautions while removing the deceased from the place of death
 
I. provides an effective barrier to portals of entry.
II. eliminates the virulence of pathogens.
III. reduces the number of microorganisms present.
IV. is required by OSHA’s bloodborne pathogen rule.
 
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
 
16. Which of the following is the first in the organs to decompose?
A. urinary bladder
B. lining of trachea.
C. nonpregnant uterus
D. mesentery and omentum
 
17. A benign neoplasm found in blood vessels is a
A. hemangiosarcoma.
B. lymphangioma.
C. hemangioma.
D. leiomyoma.
 
18. Inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart is called
A. myocarditis.
B. pancreatitis.
C. endocarditis.
D. pericarditis.
 
19. Which of the following frequently results from long-term, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?
A. erysipeias
B. gastroenteritis
C. atherosclerosis
D. Alzheimer’s disease
 
20. Which of the following conditions would be caused by a thrombus as evidenced during embalming?
 
I. diminished distribution
II. edema
III. intravascular resistance
IV. atrophy
 
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. III and IV only
 
21. Extremely hard water should NOT be used in diluting embalming fluid because it
A. causes dehydration.
B. prevents oxidation.
C. results in blood coagulation.
D. prevents permeation of the fluids.
 
22. Chemicals that have the capability of displacing unpleasant odors are
A. humectants.
B. deodorants.
C. surfactants.
D. disinfectants.
 
23. Which of the following is characteristic of a jaundice fluid?
A. no bleach content
B. no counter staining
C. low formaldehyde content
D. high formaldehyde content
 
24. To facilitate the penetration of preservatives during surface embalming, the surface gels may contain
A. phenol.
B. sodium citrate.
C. sodium lauryl sulfate.
D. quaternary ammonium compounds.
 
25. The recommended initial 3% dilution of a 20-Index standard arterial chemical used to embalm an edematous body would be which of the following?
A. 3 oz of arterial to 125 oz of water
B. 5 oz of arterial to 123 oz of water
C. 16 oz of arterial to 112 oz of water
D. 19 oz of arterial to 109 oz of water
 
26. Which of the following lists the vessels in order going from the aorta towards the upper extremity?
 
I. axillary
II. brachiocephalic
III. brachial
IV. subclavian
 
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, I, IV
C. II, IV, I, III
D. III, IV, I, II
 
27. The external iliac artery lies along the medial border of which of the following muscles?
A. psoas major
B. coracobrachialis
C. pectoralis major
D. external oblique
 
28. In relation to the lungs, the heart is
A. medial.
B. lateral.
C. inferior.
D. superior.
 
29. Blood flow to the arm and hand will reach the following arteries in what order?
 
I. brachial
II. axillary
III. radial
IV. deep palmar arch
 
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, I, III, IV
C. III, IV, I, II
D. IV, I, III, II
 
30. When using the 9-region method for cavity embalming, the cecum is located in which of the following regions?
A. hypogastric
B. right lumbar
C. left inguinal
D. right inguinal
 
Answers to Questions:
 
1. C 6. C 11. B 16. B 21. C 26. C
 
2. B 7. A 12. A 17. C 22. B 27. A
 
3. D 8. D 13. C 18. D 23. C 28. A
 
4. D 9. C 14. D 19. C 24. C 29. B
 
5. C 10. A 15. B 20. B 25. D 30. D